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I had trouble replying to the actual message, so trying to reply here.
- dmytro p April 26, 2018This is the reply to the message by Bk:
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It has correct solution..
See my method...
1. substract 1 from Rand(5) So that you can have values from 0 to 4.
2. convert value to base 2 i.e. 0 or 1. While doing this consider only 0,1,2,3 values.
If it is value 4 then do random again (This is for balancing probablity of number of 0 and 1)
3. Do this three times to get 3 different bits.
4. Now you will get binary number from 000 to 111
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Isn't the uniformity of the distribution broken here :"If it is value 4 then do random again"?
It looks like it is.